X Marks the Scot - An on-line community of kilt wearers.
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21st October 07, 07:04 PM
#3
 Originally Posted by Ruanaidh
...Verdi's "Macbeth", if done properly (and we all know what properly means) should be filled with kilts. ...
Actually, I don't know what that means.
If it was accurate to period in which MacBeth lived, 1005-1057, there would be no kilts. They hadn't yet come to be worn in Scotland.
If it was accurate to time Shakespeare wrote the play, probably between 1603 and 1606, as I recall great kilts had been worn by that time but were not yet common.
If it was accurate to the time the opera was first perfomed in 1847 in Italy, revised version performed in 1865 in Paris, anything is possible. It was a time when kilts and Highland dress were fashionable in Britain.
I used to see the SF Opera when I lived there several years ago. I remember the costuming, staging and choreography as inventive and creatively done.
Last edited by gilmore; 22nd October 07 at 09:49 AM.
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