X Marks the Scot - An on-line community of kilt wearers.
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1st March 11, 10:49 AM
#8
 Originally Posted by Burly Brute
And, as they say in the Q&A that it is descended more from the Germanic. At least, that's from what I can gather.
That would be in accord with the fact that Scottish Lowlanders are in general descendants of the Angles, who settled the area during the barbarian invasions, I mean after the 'civilized' Romans left Britain. And who were probably pushed there by the Normans.
English itself is of course a Germanic tongue, with a huge overlay of others including Norman French. This is much to the dismay of the modern French, because English words blend so easily back into French that it amounts to an irresistable force. Which serves them right for 1066!
Last edited by Lallans; 1st March 11 at 10:54 AM.
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